BBB has an interesting post which focuses on places where a formal equivalence aproach to translation misses the point of idiomatic language. One example in particular got me thinking:

Luke 2:36
ESV Anna…was advanced in years, having lived with her husband seven years from when she was a virgin,
Comment: The Greek idiom (lit.) “advanced in many days” means “very old.” The idiom “from her virginity” means “after she was married.” This illustrates one of the common mistakes made by literalist translators. They suppose that by reproducing a few words from the idiom (“advanced” and “virginity”), you get closer to the meaning. But it is the whole idiom that carries the meaning, not random words.
TNIV She was very old; she had lived with her husband seven years after her marriage,
HCSB She was well along in years, having lived with her husband seven years after her marriage,

It is not the question of whether or not as a translation of αυτη προβεβηκυια εν ημεραις πολλαις "advanced in years" is usual English usage, or whether it's Biblish, that has me wondering. Rather it's the HCSB rendering: "Well along in years" which I think is an understandable English usage, but which captures many of the overtones of the original that "was very old" fails to carry.

Now often, and probably in this case, such overtones are not important to the message. But, as any speaker or writer knows, sometimes they are vital. And, as most writers, and some speakers, discover at times even the author of the text is not aware of their impact till later... translators may therefore "miss" such effects, and overlook attempting to incorporate them, unless there is a concerted effort (when possible) to as HCSB has here incorporate them as far as possible even when they may not be significant.