Is translation e/affected by doctrine?
Adrian Warnock's UK Evangelical Blog has what's billed as an an interview with Paul House of the ESV translation team
(but there seems only to be one question as yet...) which Wayne @ Better Bibles mentioned
. I was caught by the spelling of the title, their version is "Is translation effected by doctrine?" which as I read it means: does doctrine produce translation?
[For pedants "effect: means
"# To bring into existence.
# To produce as a result.
# To bring about."
while "affect" means
"To have an influence on or effect a change in"
(see the usage note at Dictionary.com
So, does doctrine produce
translation? Of course it does, but the relationship runs both ways, doctrine produces translation - Protestant and Evangelicals have on the whole been more active in translating Scripture than Orthodox or Catholic Christians have - but also translation produces doctrine - again just think of the impact of translating the Bible into English...
But another really interesting question, which I am sure can also be answered affirmatively is does doctrine affect translation?
. Of course it does! Think of the "slant" that the desire for gender neutrality produces, or that the NIV's commitment to North American inerrantist views introduces...Should
doctrine affect translation? No. Does it? Yes.